Britain not occupy Continental Europe after defeating Napoleon- Reasons: 1. British Empire had already experienced challenges in governing territories closer to home. The American Revolutionary War had resulted in the loss of thirteen colonies, which later formed the United States. 2. The subsequent Napoleonic Wars had placed a significant strain on British resources and led to public discontent. As a result, the empire may have been wary of further territorial expansion, especially on a continent where it would face potential resistance and difficulties in administration. 3. In fact, an English victory may have had the opposite affect you suggest, and left England a defacto (if not dejure) province of France. Since the Norman Conquest, England's monarchy had spoken French. They only adopted English and reintroduced it as the language of English government during their prolonged conflict with France. 4. Hence, The French speaking English elite may have likely made France their primary seat of power, reducing England to a secondary power going forward, rather than the global superpower it eventually became. #Indonordicassociation(dot)org Indo Nordic Strategic Association, India https://qr.ae/ps87TM
Glenn Brown
8mo
I’m sorry, but this is a wholly inaccurate, not to say fanciful assessment of post Napoleonic Britain. The British monarchy did not speak French. Nor was there a French speaking elite. There was no intention of occupation - the British Army was small and actually required the Prussians and other continental allies to provide over 50% of the land forces in the struggle. The British were only too aware they could never have mounted an occupation even of France alone. The war against Napoleons France was intended to liberate the European nations from French hegemony and allow the British to trade in the wake of a return to the pre Napoleon status quo.
Writes books as G.J. Quartermaine. Geopolitics, History ... works in International Agribusiness
8moYou imply the English elite spoke French up until the Napoleonic War, or have I mistaken you? This was during the reign of George III whose mother was German, of the house of Saxe-Gotha. He was born in England, but spoke both languages. Britain had defeated France in the 7 Years War. There's no other connection. In 1362 King Edward III passed the Statute of Pleading, which declared that because “the French tongue is much unknown in this realm”, all court cases and trials should be held in English, not French. The idea that England would ever have become a dependency of France is ludicrous.